Something that really struck me when reading Johann Hari's interview with Christopher Hitchens:
So that interest in the neocons re-emerged after September 11th. They were saying - we can't carry on with the approach to the Middle East we have had for the past fifty years. We cannot go on with this proxy rule racket, where we back tyranny in the region for the sake of stability. So we have to take the risk of uncorking it and hoping the more progressive side wins." He has replaced a belief in Marxist revolution with a belief in spreading the American revolution. Thomas Jefferson has displaced Karl Marx.
Having read LGF since March 2004 (I'm taking a break right now), I can confidently say - yes. But what does this mean? Marx = Jefferson? I think we should be told.
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